Doctrinal Issues
Frequently Asked Questions
To assist our readers, the FAQs
under this heading have been grouped by topic:
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I
have been doing a lot of searching of the Scriptures and was looking at
baptism. I could find no one
baptized in the name
of the "Father, Son, and of the Holy Spirit," just people baptized in
Jesus' name (Acts 10:48; Acts 19:5). Could you let me know why Lutherans
baptize in the name of the "Father, Son and Holy Spirit"?
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The LCMS uses the "sprinkle"
method of baptism, if
you will. The people of the Bible, including Jesus, were baptized using
the immersion method. Why doesn't our church follow the way Jesus was
baptized by John?
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My stepdaughter wants to join a Church of God
church which requires her to be baptized by immersion although she was
baptized in a Lutheran church as an infant. Believing that there is one
baptism for the forgiveness of sins, the question has arisen whether or
not one can be baptized more than once. If so, why then do we not get
re-baptized in the
same manner that we take communion? Or is there a doctrinal/biblical
prohibition against being re-baptized? I have searched your FAQ pages on
the topic of infant baptism. Your pages state that faith is created in
infants at baptism by the power of the Holy Spirit.
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Are
infants aware of their baptism?
-
What is the Greek word for "baptized"
in Mark 16:15-16? What does the word mean?
-
Can you please clarify the Lutherans' view of
baptism and what is its
purpose? Does the child become a Christian when baptized?
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You teach, as did Martin Luther, that man is
justified by grace alone, through faith alone. Yet I also read your
position on baptism and it seems to me that you also teach
baptismal regeneration.
You clearly state that a person (infant) comes into the blessings of
grace (salvation) through their baptism. How can this be if the
scripture teaches that faith is the means of apprehending salvation? I
may simply be misunderstanding what you are saying in the section on
baptism, I hope I am. If not, then I must insist that there would then
be no difference between the LCMS and the Roman Church on its view of
justification and salvation. Please help me understand where I am
misunderstanding you.
-
What is the
blessing of baptism
to adults who already believe, and thus by their faith already are
adopted into God's family, been regenerated, and have all the spiritual
blessings they would receive by being baptized?
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There are so many Lutherans I know who assume,
since they were baptized as children, they can live as they like and it
doesn't matter--they are
saved because of baptism. Is this what we (LCMS) believe? It seems
like faith must be living and real--not just a liturgical act.
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Why do Lutherans
baptize infants?
-
How does faith play a role in
infant baptism? Is
faith later taken care of when the child is confirmed?
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I heard a pastor (not LCMS) that in order to be
saved you must be "born
again" and quoted several scriptural passages. What is the LCMS
position? I thought baptism was good enough!
-
The
wording ("have clothed
yourselves with Christ" as found in the NIV translation of the Bible
and Luther's Small Catechism, page 209) doesn't come across as the best
translation. The Holy Spirit does the work, not me or anyone else. We
don't clothe ourselves. Please explain or comment.
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I
was taught that Lutherans do not believe that the
bread and wine in
the Lord's Supper are symbols. I was also taught that you do not believe
that the bread and wine are "changed into the body and blood of Christ,"
but believe it "is" the body and blood...that it is still bread and
wine, and that Christ is "in, with and under" the bread and wine. Can
you show me in Luther's writings and in Scripture why this is true?
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A discussion has arisen as to which is preferable
for use at communion--red or
white wine. I realize that the Bible does not speak to this issue.
Would it be possible to give me the rationale for the use of either? Or,
is it simply a matter of personal preference?
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I believe in the Real Presence of Christ in the
Eucharist, but I am have some trouble reconciling it with the Old
Testament prohibition
against eating blood. Didn't the Jerusalem Council in A.D. 50 send
out a pastoral letter informing Christians to abstain from eating blood?
I have also been accused by fellow Christians as committing cannibalism
in the heart and sacrificing Jesus over again.
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What does the Missouri Synod teach regarding the
sacrament of communion
and who can partake in this sacrament?
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My Lutheran (not LCMS) Bible study leader said
that the purpose of
communion is to remember Jesus. This startled and confused me. I
grew up and was confirmed in the LCMS. Communion, as far as I am aware,
is a means of grace. A sacrament instituted by Christ so that we may see
and participate in this forgiveness. The only part that throws me off
theologically, is the words of institution where we say "this do in
remembrance of me." Perhaps you can shed some light on my confusion.
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I have
heard the expression that a person could take
communion to their
damnation. Could you explain? Is there scripture for backing this
statement?
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Can
a person be forgiven of
a sin that they are still committing? For example, if a person is
doing drugs? Let's say the person confesses their sin to God, but then
continues to commit the sin again. They want to stop doing the drugs,
but for whatever reason they continue with the drugs and continue asking
for forgiveness. I guess the question is really this: My understanding
is that a person is forgiven based on what they believe (not on what
they 'do'). If a person is sorry for their sin and confesses their sin,
but does not 'omit' the sin from their lives, are they truly forgiven?
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I believe that Christ took the punishment for our
sins. We confess and are forgiven, but we are not punished because
Christ paid the ultimate price. I believe we are not under the law but
under the gospel of Christ. My husband, however, believes that we
confess, are forgiven, but are still punished. He says we are still
under the law as well as
the gospel. For example, if I am envious of someone's possessions,
I can confess and God will forgive, but He will still exact some
punishment, keeping me financially strapped so I cannot have that
possession which caused the envy in the first place.
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I don't really understand
repentance. Is it
being sorry for your sins and confessing them to God or does it mean to
stop committing a certain sin? Like if you are stealing, does repentance
mean to stop stealing, because that would mean we can stop sinning and
we know we can never stop sinning. I have sins that I commit over and
over again, not like I did before I was saved, but I still commit them.
So if I don't stop committing those sins (repentance), does that mean
that I am going to hell? And also, when the Bible talks about how
worldly sorrow brings death but godly sorrow brings repentance and life,
how do I know which one I have?
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Why do
bad things happen to
good people? Does God cause bad things or does he just let them
happen? Does he punish or discipline? And what could be the
purpose--such as when you lose your Mom at the age of 11 and she
suffered so with cancer?
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In our church's confession, the congregation
states that we deserve
eternal damnation and hell, or something close to that. These words
sound harsh and don't feel like they are legitimately connected to God.
I just don't think that God thinks that we deserve eternal damnation and
hell. Will you please explain this part of the confession and also
provide information on the Biblical basis for it?
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We understand that by His suffering and death as
the substitute for all people of all time, Jesus purchased and won
forgiveness of sins and
eternal life for them. My question is this: Why are we still asking
God to forgive our sins? It seems to me that it's a part of the liturgy
in almost all worship services, it's taught in our schools, and modeled
by our pastors in their teaching and prayers. The implication to me is
that I am not really forgiven. I must keep asking and pleading to "keep
the slate clean." Any kind of rational thought or logic tells me that I
am either forgiven or I am not. The sins that accumulate between the
times that I ask for forgiveness would certainly separate me from God
and send me to hell if I were to die with them unforgiven.
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How does a person know if he or she has
sinned against the Holy
Spirit? Could a person commit this sin and not know about it? Is
concern about this sin evidence that one has not committed it?
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Will God
forgive me of my
sins if I haven't forgiven others?
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What does the Missouri Synod believe about
confession of sin?
Should it be made to God directly or through a person, such as a
minister?
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Why is
Confession\Absolution
not considered a Sacrament in the Missouri Synod?
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My son
asked me why Jesus had to
suffer for our sins. Why couldn't God excuse our sins just by our
belief in Christ without Jesus suffering such a horrible death?
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I
have a severely disabled
child. Mentally she is no more than 12 months and she is unlikely to
progress. Since the Bible says that only those who reject the Lord will
be lost then what of those who cannot know grace personally due to
severe mental handicap? Can we know for a certainty that they have
saving grace from God? Surely they must ALL be saved because they do not
reject the Lord and only those who reject the Lord will be lost.
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I have a question for you. I just read your FAQ
about "when you were saved." I liked your answer and the emphasis on the
fact that God is the important person in the saving, not us by our own
decision. However, how would you answer the argument that we are
changing one human action
for another? We are not "saving ourselves" by choosing to ask Jesus into
our heart; however are we "saving ourselves" by choosing to baptize? Or
is it different because our parents are choosing on our behalf?
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I recently was asked
when I was "saved."
Growing up in the LCMS I was baptized as an infant. I came to faith
throughout my childhood and I continue to grow in faith everyday. I
could not pinpoint one specific day I was "saved" or a specific time I
asked Christ to come into my life. I know he lives in my heart. This
person told me that it was a shame I didn't know an exact date I was
saved. I want to know how Lutherans feel about the expressions: "The day
I was saved," "When I got saved," and "I accepted Christ into my life."
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What place do
feelings have in
guiding our Christian faith? I know that our salvation is dependent on
Christ alone, and not on how we feel, but it seems that God often uses
feelings to help guide us. What is the Synod's view on this?
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I like to think that there is a little
good in everyone.
My wife, however, says that everyone is completely bad until they
believe and even then they need to confess each day to have any good in
them, since only God is good and He does not exist where there is bad.
This idea seems very negative to me. I thought that I was taught (I was
Catholic) that there is some good in everyone. I'm sure that I have some
bad in me, but I believe God is living in me and that I always have good
in me. I also take it a little further and think that God poured out His
spirit to everyone.
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Listening to a sermon on Sunday, the pastor was
telling us that we should lead
good lives and try
not to sin. But we do know that God is all forgiving and that he died
for all of our sins. To me, this sounds like double talk. On one hand we
are not to sin, but on the other hand, we don't have to worry as long as
we believe in our Lord Jesus Christ--everything will be okay. I don't
think our Lord came down and taught for three years on how to be holy
and lead good lives and then die on the cross so that we can do what we
want. Don't we have to ask for forgiveness, be truly sorry and really
try to amend our life's in order to be saved?
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Recently a poll stated that some high percentage
(54 percent) of Lutherans felt a person could be saved by being "good."
This brought a question to mind: It seems that other "Christian"
denominations, and yes, even some Lutherans, feel that they believe in
Jesus Christ as their Savior; but at the same time, they somehow feel
that one must DO good things,
be good, try your best, etc., in addition to that faith in Christ that
they profess they have. In other words, they do not trust in Christ
alone for salvation, but in Christ plus works. My question is this: Will
those who have this erroneous belief--perhaps from inadequate study of
the Word or because they are confused for some reason or their
denomination has this type of theology, whatever--would one consider
that these people may be saved?
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If I believe someone to be a believing Christian,
can I ever criticize him for failing to do
good works? Given
that he is saved by faith, does God see to it that he will do good works
and if so, does God fix the number and character of these works? Can a
person with faith feel assured that he is doing enough good works, and
that God is indifferent to further ones? Can a person who is not saved
do good works? Is God indifferent to them? Or is He glad when an
agnostic performs an act of Christ-like mercy? If a Christian knows that
he is saved by knowing that he has faith, should he bother with the
question whether he is practicing Christ's teachings, given that faith
alone is sufficient for salvation? Or should he bother with it only
because a large enough absence of good works would suggest his faith
might be too weak for salvation?
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I've noticed that the Lutheran Church says that
we need to "believe
(through faith) in Jesus" to be saved. I've always been told that
"believing" is not enough, for even the demons "believe" in Jesus and
shudder at His name - - this does not mean the demons are saved. We must
"accept" Him as our Savior and ask Him into our life - - hence, the
Baptist Sinner's Prayer. Could you please comment on this for me?
-
On what should we base our
assurance of salvation?
I know the Word and the promises of the Gospel are our rock, but how do
we distinguish between real faith and mere intellectual assent? I ask
this because many evangelicals make me nervous when they say that if one
has doubts about one's salvation, one is probably not saved, because the
Holy Spirit is supposed to provide inner assurance. (I guess this ties
in to the whole Pietist problem.) But in the face of emotional ups and
downs, moral failings, intellectual doubts, and confusion over doctrine,
how can one know if one truly has faith in Christ?
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I understand that God
chose those for salvation
before the very foundation of the world. The Bible does not say that
there are those who are chosen and that there are those who are not. So,
does that mean then that God chose everyone to be saved before the
foundation of the world and therefore it is man's choice whether he will
accept God's saving grace or not? However, one cannot come into God's
grace by himself, but by the Holy Spirit "leading" him unto salvation.
Is that the correct interpretation? I am confused by the fact that we
were chosen by God before the foundation of the world, yet the very
action of choosing can mean that there were those who were not chosen. I
know that God wishes everyone to be saved. Can you help me?
-
In the Bible, Mark 16:16 states: "Whoever
believes and is baptized, will be saved; whoever does not believe and is
baptized, will be condemned." Even though it says flat out, "Whoever
believes...will be saved," along with other verses which support the
simple fact that "...by faith you are
saved by grace...,"
why is it that other doctrinal views are thrown in to be the "true
interpretation" of the Holy Scripture? For example, Holy Communion,
which separates us from other Christian denominations.) Why can't we
simply have the common fundamental idea that whoever believes by faith
that Christ is their Savior and they are saved, instead of being so
segregated from other Christian denominations that profess the same
thing concerning our salvation? In other words, why are our petty
differences that shouldn't matter to the guarantee to salvation separate
us?
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Is it accurate to say that Lutherans believe that
we are first given the ability to believe in Christ as Lord and Savior
through the Holy Spirit and then it is our choice and responsibility to
choose to believe in Christ,
or am I off here?
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I have heard people making a distinction between
a theology of glory and
the theology of the cross. What is the distinction being made?
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Can you lose your
salvation and if you
can, what do you need to do to regain it again?
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One of your FAQ answers states that it is
possible for one to lose
his salvation. However, in your Theses on Justification (1983) on
this website it says plainly that believers have eternal assurance
(paragraph 58). Which is it?
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Near the end of the Athanasian Creed, it says
"that if you do good" you will be saved. How does this relate to being
saved by grace?
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Would you explain the LCMS position on "predestined"
in Romans 8 and Ephesians 1? If one is predestined to be adopted as a
redeemed child of God, then does it follow that another is predestined
to not be adopted and therefore damned?
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Recently an individual stated that if a believer
dies with unconfessed
known sin he or she loses salvation and spends eternity in hell.
What is the LCMS position regarding this matter?
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What
does the LCMS believe regarding man's
freedom of will?
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Can
you sin in heaven?
My first thought is that one cannot. But then I wonder if God takes away
our free will when we get to heaven? I can't imagine why we would want
to sin in heaven--we'll be perfect and the place we are will be perfect.
But then I think of Adam and Eve before the fall--they were perfect,
made in God's image, and they lived in a perfect place. Yet they had
free will and sinned.
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Will I have my
personality when I get
to heaven? Will I like everyone in heaven, given all the
personalities? Will I have a body?
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What is meant by the Jews being
God's chosen people?
What is their eternal future? Does a Jew who dies without Christ as
their Savior spend eternity in hell? Should we, as Christians, pray for
their conversion?
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Does The Lutheran Church--Missouri Synod believe
in the rapture?
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In our Bible study today we discussed if there
are degrees or levels in
heaven and hell. It was also suggested that hell is not eternal. Are
there scriptural references to support these points?
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I recently attended a Bible study in which we
discussed the fate of
those who never had the chance to hear about God. What happens to
such people?
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What about
infants who die
before being baptized?
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What does the Bible teach about the
resurrection from the
death (both Christ's and ours)? Is it just a "spiritual" resurrection or
is it a physical resurrection?
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Recently both my sister and father have died (separately). While I truly
believe that Jesus died for our sins, those who accept Him as their
personal Savior, I have been troubled as to where my sister and father
are now. Are they asleep
until the end of the world? Are their bodies asleep, but their souls
with God? Or, are they in Heaven with God now?
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What is the position of The Lutheran Church--Missouri Synod on the
insertion of the Filioque
(and the Son) in the Nicene Creed?
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What is the meaning of "Very
God of Very God" in the Nicene Creed?
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Was Christ the true son of Mary or only
implanted as a whole
by the Holy Spirit? There seems to be some different views on this--one
view that Mary carried Jesus in her womb and gave birth to Him but He
was not her biological son. The other that while the Holy Spirit
conceived the Christ child, the virgin Mary's egg was used thus giving
the God-Man His humanity without sin.
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Why is God, the
Holy Spirit, viewed
as a person and not as a Spirit?
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How does the Church arrive at a
Friday crucifixion if
our Lord plainly said he would descend for three days and three nights?
Assuming that Jesus arose on the first day (sometime after the Sabbath
but before dawn) and counting backwards I count a Wednesday crucifixion.
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One line in the Apostles' Creed says, "On the
third day He rose again."
Grammatically speaking, for Jesus to have "rose AGAIN" implies that
there was a previous rising from the dead for him --- which the
Scriptures do not indicate, nor do we teach. Would you please explain
for me why the Creed says, "He rose AGAIN"? It would seem that to say,
"He rose from the dead . . ." or "He rose" would be more correct.
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Could you tell me what exactly "confessional"
means to the LCMS?
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Tell me about the three
creeds of the Lutheran
Church, including their history.
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Why does the Missouri Synod believe the three
persons of the Trinity
are "co-equal and co-eternal, one God"?
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In the Nicene Creed we confess the
Holy Spirit proceeds
from the Father and the Son. Could you explain what this statement
means?
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In the Apostle's Creed, it says, Christ was
"...crucified, died and was buried. He descended into hell. The third
day he rose again...." But in Luke, Jesus says to the thief next to him:
"Surely today you will be with me in paradise." My question is, where in
the Bible does it ever talk about
Jesus descending into hell?
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I have
been a Missouri Synod Lutheran for many years, but never really
understood a statement in the Apostles' Creed where it says that
Jesus descended into
hell. Could you explain this more fully to me? Did Jesus have to be
tormented in hell as part of the payment for our sins or was the
finished work of Christ completed on the cross through his death and
shed blood for the full payment for our sins?
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I
was raised in the Lutheran church, believing that the
Bible stories we learned
were literally true. Since our transfer to Louisiana, I had been
attending a Methodist church because there is no Lutheran church in this
area. A lay leader has been telling us that the story of Jonah is a
fictional story, and not true. What does the Lutheran church teach is
respect to this and other stories in the Old Testament?
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My wife and I recently attended and LCMS church
in our area, and we really enjoyed the sermon we hear. I've been trying
to think through some of the answers to the questions on your web site
to try to get a better understanding of LCMS doctrine. I've also been
reading a little of Luther's writings as well as looking up a few verses
of Scripture. So, in light of that, I have a general question: Is it
part of LCMS theology to leave
conflicts unresolved
between one part of Scripture and another? For example, in John
5:24, we read the following: "Most assuredly, I say to you, he who
hears My word and believes in Him who sent Me has everlasting life, and
shall not come into judgment but has passed from death into life." And
in Mark 16:16, we read the following: "He who believes and is baptized
will be saved; but he who does not believe will be condemned." Is it
part of LCMS doctrine to simply assert both verses to be true and to
stop there? Also, other verse comparisons come to mind, such as Acts
2:38 and John 5:24 mentioned above.
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Is the
Sermon on the Mount a
statement of Law or is it a statement of Gospel? The footnotes on p.
1456 of the Concordia Self-Study Bible (NIV) leaves me without an exact
answer.
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Does
God test us as
Christians? I believe that He does. I've heard it said that God allows
things that will test us but does not do so directly. I believe God does
not tempt us but that He does allow Satan to tempt us.
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On a recent radio program, the hosts suggested
that each of us would have moments like that
Christ had in the garden
before he was betrayed? Is this right?
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Does God have a
specific will for
us? Or does He just want us to love him and believe that He is our Lord
and Savior? Does God call us to a "job" or "task" for Him? How do I
know if He wants me to be a pastor or a truck driver? People are telling
me that God doesn't have a plan for me (Proverbs 16:3) and other say
that the Lord will guide us along the path of life (Proverbs 19:21).
Which one is right?
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In a Bible study group we have been trying to see
how God disciplines us
today and whether it is the same as the methods He used in the Old
Testament. I guess an example would be that He used plagues to
discipline Pharaoh or the destruction of Sodom. Can you please offer
some insight?
-
From what I understand, the LCMS takes
Revelation and other
apocalyptic literature as figurative. For example, Revelation uses a
cycle of sevens throughout the books, and seven is supposed to be a
symbolic number for completeness. Other denominations and simply other
people in general take numbers in Revelation as literal. I don't
disagree with taking it figuratively or symbolically, however you wish
to state it). However, why are the "seven's" in Revelation taken
figuratively but the days of the creation account are almost always
taken literally? It is said in Genesis that God created the earth in six
days and rested on the seventh. Why is this normally taught as being
literal?
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Is it true that some believe that the only
true name for God is
"Yahweh" and that salvation is possible only by believing in this
specific name for God?
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I am doing a research paper on why the LCMS
believes that all sins are
equal before God. Some religions make distinctions between sins,
saying that some are less serious than others. What does the Bible say
about this?
-
We've seen movies about people searching for the
ark of the covenant. Is
there some reference in the Bible saying that the ark no longer existed
at some point? Where might this be in the scriptures, if at all, or does
it say anything about it not being meant to be found?
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Where in the Bible is the doctrine of
sola scriptura taught?
Are the verses of 2 Pet. 1:20 and 2 Pet. 3:15-16 contradictory to this
doctrine?
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An article I read on Revelation, Chapter 7,
states that the
144,000 referred to as being saved are not Jewish converts. Some
Bible studies state they are. What do you believe this number refers
to?
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Jesus ascended physically into heaven after his
resurrection. Is Jesus
still flesh-and-blood God or is he now Spirit? I ask this question
because of a comment my sister, a Calvinist, made concerning the
Lutheran view of the Eucharist. She states that Jesus is always with us
so his presence in communion is no big deal. I believe that while Jesus
as God is always with us, His physical presence during communion--in,
with, and under the elements--is especially faith-building and
soul-reassuring, both a time of joy and a time of deep repentance.
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In John 2:4 of the Revised Standard Version of
the Bible, Jesus is quoted as saying, "O
woman, what have you to do with me?" Do all Christians speak in in
this manner to their mothers?
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I am wondering if you can help in my research
concerning Matthew 27:46. I have read in other places that when
translating the Aramaic into English, the verse properly reads: "My God,
My God, for this purpose was I left or spared." I have believed in my
own heart when studying the Scriptures that God never left His Son,
Jesus Christ at any time. There are many Scriptures that state
God never left Jesus
Christ alone. I am still searching and would appreciate any help.
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In my daily Bible reading, I read the passage
that says that women should wear a
head covering in church
to show that they're subject to men. What is the LCMS official answer to
this?
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What does Jesus mean by the
kingdom of God?
Example: Seek ye first the kingdom of God (Matt. 6:33). Jesus often used
parables to picture the kingdom of God. Did He mean heaven?
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In your FAQs, you state that the LCMS sees the
Bible as inerrant in
all things, including history and science. But where does the Bible ever
make that claim of historical and scientific inerrancy for itself? It
seems that in its eagerness to defend the "Word" of God, the Synod has
decided to make claims of inerrancy for documents which never make that
claim for themselves.
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I need some help in explaining to a Deist how we
can know the Bible is God's
inspired word. He claims that even if one can prove the Bible is
historically and archaeologically accurate, it still doesn't prove it is
God's inspired word.
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What is the LCMS understanding of where
different nationalities
came from? Why are some people of different color, body type, etc.?
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If someone believes that Jesus was
Son of God, but not
necessarily the ONLY Son of God (allowing for other religions to have
their own Divine Messengers) would that be an acceptable concept for the
faith, or would it be cause to deny membership? Also, if someone accepts
Jesus as their own personal Savior yet feels its possible that people
may be reborn in the flesh more than once, is that an unacceptable
belief entirely opposed to Missouri Synod interpretation?
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Are there
female angels? I
believe that the Holy Scriptures only mentions three angels, all of whom
were male: Michael, Gabriel, and Raphael. It seems that pop culture has
tried to portray angels as female.
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When Christ was on the cross and He asked God,
"Why has Thou forsaken Me?"--was
that a question from Christ's human side?
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I have read biblical commentators who state that
many changes in the text of the Bible had occurred either through
interpretation into other languages or throughout the years as it was
copied over and over again. Thus the question: How do we know that the
Word has not been tampered
with to such a great extent as to mislead us?
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Why do you refer to yourselves as
Lutherans and not
Christians? Did Luther die for your sins? Why do you need a Book of
Concord or Luther's Small Catechism? Why isn't the Bible, the word of
God, sufficient? Are you aware of the warning in Revelation to those
that add to God's word?
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Since Lutherans believe that authority comes from
"scripture alone," and they view scripture as inerrant, would Lutherans
be considered "fundamentalists?"
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How can we as sinful human beings
"interpret" the
divinely inspired word of God--the Bible? Also, if the Bible is complete
and errorless, why does it require interpretation?
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Can you tell me what changed after the scriptures
were written that God no
longer speaks audibly to His children? We, as Lutherans, believe
that the Holy Spirit spoke God's Word through men. Why did God stop
speaking in that way? On the same note, why don't we see the same kind
of miracles that were recorded in the time right after Christ's
ascension?
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Do we know where Jesus was actually
crucified and buried?
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What is the Lutheran church's position or
teaching regarding the
Apocrypha as found in Roman Catholic Bibles?
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Jesus was to come
from the house of David. I see references in the Bible to Joseph of that
lineage; I can't find references to
Mary's being of the house
of David. Are they there?
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How
many people were created
without sin? How many people are left on this earth without sin?
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What is the Lutheran view of the currently popular book
The Prayer of Jabez by
Bruce Wilkinson?
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I would appreciate knowing our official LCMS
doctrinal position on
prayers for, or on behalf of, the dead, specifically those who have
died (as far as we know) in the faith.
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Who wrote the
common table prayer
used by many Lutherans, "Come, Lord Jesus ..." and where did it come
from?
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Lutherans basically believe that
prayer is a one-way
form of communication; from the believer to God, and that God speaks to
us only via Word and Sacrament, as 'enlightened' by the Holy Ghost. But
to what extent can a sincere believer believe that God (perhaps more
specifically, The Third Person) speak to one, especially with regards to
answering prayer(s)?
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Can we
change God's mind through prayer or are all of our actions and days
of our lives predetermined? If we pray that God's will be done, where
does the power of prayer come in?
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Does
God send punishment
here on earth? Example: I recently heard a minister pray asking God to
let us know what was it we were doing that caused Him to send a drought
to our region....is it a "punishment" from God to have a drought? If so,
would He be punishing all the people in the region for a specific sin?
Do we teach that God just gets "ticked off" and sends drought, floods
etc? I always thought that to be the "God of the Old Testament" but with
the fulfilled promise of the new God offers forgiveness rather than
punishment.
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Do I need to seek out a pastor to have my
sins forgiven? Is
that not a power given to God? I mean that if I ask God to forgive a
sin, must I seek out my pastor to have it forgiven or can my sin be
forgiven through prayer?
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What is the LCMS view on
sainthood?
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When you want to
pray for a pastor,
is it best to ask God to bless him? Or is it better to ask God to give
him wisdom in God's will and patience to deal with the congregation? As
someone in the church offices, what kind of prayer do you think would be
most appropriate?
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I believe strongly in justification by faith
alone. However, in past months my conscience has been troubled by Roman
Catholic teachings of the Papacy. I could easily discard their claims,
but I am vexed over the meaning of
Matthew 16:18-19. What is the Lutheran interpretation of these two
verses? Specifically, here are a few questions:
 |
What is
the rock that
Christ builds his Church on (I realize this occurs just after Peter declares his faith that Jesus is the
Son of God)?
|
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To whom does he give the keys to heaven and
the power to bind and loose? |
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What are the keys to heaven? |
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I have a question based on the Missouri Synod's
statement on belief
adopted in 1932 on the
public ministry. It
states that the public ministry is a "divine ordinance," but then goes
on to say that ordination is not a divine ordinance but "an
ecclesiastical ordinance." What is the difference?
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Where does the doctrine/understanding of an "invisible
church"--the belief that all Christians, regardless of differences,
are members of this "church"--originate? Scripture clearly is in
opposition to this (Romans 16) and the early church fathers talk only
about an invisible part of the Church that has gone on before us. Did
not Christ say he would build His Church, not churches?
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Why are
women not allowed to
become ministers in the Missouri Synod?
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Please explain
divine call. Is there a
biblical reference, or is it a manmade concept?
Check back often for additional questions! And
answers!
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LCMS - FAQ's for even more information! |